The Preparation for Final Examination

chap 17:
1) Which of the following variations on translation would be most disadvantageous for a cell?
A) translating polypeptides directly from DNA
B) using fewer kinds of tRNA
C) having only one stop codon
D) lengthening the half-life of mRNA
E) having a second codon (besides AUG) as a start codon a 5) A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is 5' AGT 3'. The corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is
A) 3' UCA 5'.
B) 3' UGA 5'.
C) 5' TCA 3'.
D) 3' ACU 5'.
E) either UCA or TCA, depending on wobble in the first base. a 6) The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume which of the following? A) A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism.
B) All organisms have experienced convergent evolution.
C) DNA was the first genetic material.
D) The same codons in different organisms translate into the different amino acids.
E) Different organisms have different numbers of different types of amino acids. a 12) RNA polymerase in a prokaryote is composed of several subunits. Most of these subunits are the same for the transcription of any gene, but one, known as sigma, varies considerably. Which of the following is the most probable advantage for the organism of such sigma switching?
A) It might allow the transcription process to vary from one cell to another.
B) It might allow the polymerase to recognize different promoters under certain environmental conditions.
C) It could allow the polymerase to react differently to each stop codon.
D) It could allow ribosomal subunits to assemble at faster rates.
E) It could alter the rate of translation and of exon splicing. b 15) Transcription in eukaryotes requires which of the following in addition to RNA polymerase?
A) the protein product of the promoter
B) start and stop codons
C) ribosomes and tRNA
D) several transcription factors (TFs)
E) aminoacyl synthetase d 16) A part of the promoter, called the TATA box, is said to be highly conserved in evolution. Which of the following might this illustrate?
A) The sequence evolves very rapidly.
B) The sequence does not mutate.
C) Any mutation in the sequence is selected against.
D) The sequence is found in many but not all promoters.
E) The sequence is transcribed at the start of every gene. c 18) What is a ribozyme?
A) an enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate
B) an RNA with enzymatic activity
C) an enzyme that catalyzes the association between the large and small ribosomal subunits
D) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the transcription process
E) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA primers during DNA replication b 21) Alternative RNA splicing
A) is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription.

B) can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA.
C) can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs.
D) increases the rate of transcription.
E) is due to the presence or absence of particular snRNPs. b 29) A particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is AAA. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the mRNA codon is
A) TTT.
B) UUA.
C) UUU.
D) AAA.
E) either UAA or TAA, depending on first base wobble. c 30) Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary structure of a polypeptide depends on specificity in the A) binding of ribosomes to mRNA.
B) shape of the A and P sites of ribosomes.
C) bonding of the anticodon to the codon.
D) attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.
E) bonding of the anticodon to the codon and the attachment of amino acids to tRNAs. e 64) A possible sequence of nucleotides in the template strand of DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence phe-leu-ile-val would be
A) 5' TTG-CTA-CAG-TAG 3'.
B) 3' AAC-GAC-GUC-AUA 5'.
C) 5' AUG-CTG-CAG-TAT 3'.
D) 3' AAA-AAT-ATA-ACA 5'.
E) 3' AAA-GAA-TAA-CAA 5'. e use the figure of 64
65) What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence?
5' AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG 3'
A) met-arg-glu-arg-glu-arg
B) met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu
C) met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
D) met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
E) met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu d use the figure of 64

66) A peptide has the sequence NH2-phe-pro-lys-gly-phe-pro-COOH. Which of the following sequences in the coding strand of the DNA could code for this peptide?
A) 3' UUU-CCC-AAA-GGG-UUU-CCC
B) 3' AUG-AAA-GGG-TTT-CCC-AAA-GGG
C) 5' TTT-CCC-AAA-GGG-TTT-CCC
D) 5' GGG-AAA-TTT-AAA-CCC-ACT-GGG
E) 5' ACT-TAC-CAT-AAA-CAT-TAC-UGA c DNA template strand
5' ____________________________ 3'

DNA complementary strand
3' ____________________________ 5'

67) Given the locally unwound double strand above, in which direction does the RNA polymerase move?
A) 3' → 5' along the template strand
B) 5' → 3' along the template strand
C) 3' → 5' along the complementary strand
D) 5' → 3' along the complementary strand
E) 5' → 3' along the double-stranded DNA a DNA template strand
5' ____________________________ 3'
DNA complementary strand
3' ____________________________ 5'
68) In the transcription event of the previous DNA, where would the promoter be located?
A) at the 3' end of the newly made RNA
B) to the right of the template strand
C) to the left of the template strand
D) to the right of the sense strand
E) to the left of the sense strand b A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a ribosome: 5' CCG-ACG 3' (mRNA).
The following charged transfer RNA molecules (with their anticodons shown in the 3' to 5' direction) are available. Two of them can correctly match the mRNA so that a dipeptide can form.
69) The dipeptide that will form will be

A) cysteine-alanine.
B) proline-threonine.
C) glycine-cysteine.
D) alanine-alanine.
E) threonine-glycine. b use the figure of 69
A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a ribosome: 5' CCG-ACG 3' (mRNA).
The following charged transfer RNA molecules (with their anticodons shown in the 3' to 5' direction) are available. Two of them can correctly match the mRNA so that a dipeptide can form.
70) The anticodon loop of the first tRNA that will complement this mRNA is
A) 3' GGC 5'
B) 5' GGC 3'
C) 5' ACG 3'
D) 5' UGC 3'
E) 3' UGC 5'a a chapter 22
8) Charles Darwin was the first person to propose
A) that evolution occurs.
B) a mechanism for how evolution occurs.
C) that Earth is older than a few thousand years.
D) a mechanism for evolution that was supported by evidence.
E) that population growth can outpace the growth of food resources. d 9) Which of these conditions should completely prevent the occurrence of natural selection in a population over time? A) All variation between individuals is due only to environmental factors.
B) The environment is changing at a relatively slow rate.
C) The population size is large.
D) The population lives in a habitat where there are no competing species present. a 10) Natural selection is based on all of the following except
A) genetic variation exists within populations.
B) the best-adapted individuals tend to leave the most offspring.
C) individuals who survive longer tend to leave more offspring than those who die young.
D) populations tend to produce more individuals than the environment can support.
E) individuals adapt to their environments and, thereby, evolve. e 40) Currently, two extant elephant species (X and Y) are placed in the genus Loxodonta and a third species (Z) is placed in the genus Elephas. Assuming this classification reflects evolutionary relatedness, which of the following is the most accurate phylogenetic tree?
A. SEE IMAGE

B. SEE IMAGE
C. SEE IMAGE
D. SEE IMAGE
E. SEE IMAGE d 55) DNA sequences in many human genes are very similar to the sequences of corresponding genes in chimpanzees. The most likely explanation for this result is that
A) humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor.
B) humans evolved from chimpanzees.
C) chimpanzees evolved from humans.
D) convergent evolution led to the DNA similarities.
E) humans and chimpanzees are not closely related. a chap 23
73) Natural selection changes allele frequencies because some ________ survive and reproduce more successfully than others.
A) alleles
B) loci
C) gene pools
D) species
E) individuals e chap24
4) Which of the various species concepts distinguishes two species based on the degree of genetic exchange between their gene pools?
A) phylogenetic
B) ecological
C) biological
D) morphological c chap25
12) Approximately how far back in time does the fossil record extend?
A) 3.5 million years
B) 5.0 million years
C) 3.5 billion years
D) 5.0 billion years c 18) What is thought to be the correct sequence of these events, from earliest to most recent, in the evolution of life on Earth?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

origin origin origin origin origin

of of of of of

mitochondria multicellular eukaryotes chloroplasts cyanobacteria fungal-plant symbioses

A) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
B) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
C) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
D) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
E) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 c 19) If it were possible to conduct sophisticated microscopic and chemical analyses of microfossils found in
3.2-billion-year-old stromatolites, then one should be surprised to observe evidence of which of the following within such microfossils?
I. double-stranded DNA

II. a nuclear envelope
III. a nucleoid
IV. a nucleolus
V. ribosomes
A) II only
B) III only
C) II and IV
D) II, III, and IV
E) all five of these c chap 26
33) What kind of evidence has recently made it necessary to assign the prokaryotes to either of two different domains, rather than assigning all prokaryotes to the same kingdom?
A) molecular
B) behavioral
C) nutritional
D) anatomical
E) ecological a 35) Members of which kingdom have cell walls and are all heterotrophic?
A) Plantae
B) Fungi
C) Animalia
D) Protista
E) Monera b 73) If you were using cladistics to build a phylogenetic tree of cats, which of the following would be the best outgroup? A) lion
B) domestic cat
C) wolf
D) leopard
E) tiger c chap 27
2) Though plants, fungi, and prokaryotes all have cell walls, we place them in different taxa. Which of these observations comes closest to explaining the basis for placing these organisms in different taxa, well before relevant data from molecular systematics became available?
A) Some closely resemble animals, which lack cell walls.
B) Their cell walls are composed of very different biochemicals.
C) Some have cell walls only for support.
D) Some have cell walls only for protection from herbivores.
E) Some have cell walls only to control osmotic balance. b 3) Which statement about bacterial cell walls is false?
A) Bacterial cell walls differ in molecular composition from plant cell walls.
B) Cell walls prevent cells from bursting in hypotonic environments.
C) Cell walls prevent cells from dying in hypertonic conditions.
D) Bacterial cell walls are similar in function to the cell walls of many protists, fungi, and plants.
E) Cell walls provide the cell with a degree of physical protection from the environment. c 10) Which statement about the genomes of prokaryotes is correct?
A) Prokaryotic genomes are diploid throughout most of the cell cycle.
B) Prokaryotic chromosomes are sometimes called plasmids.
C) Prokaryotic cells have multiple chromosomes, "packed" with a relatively large amount of protein.
D) The prokaryotic chromosome is not contained within a nucleus but, rather, is found at the nucleolus.

E) Prokaryotic genomes are composed of circular DNA. e 12) Although not present in all bacteria, this cell covering often enables cells that possess it to resist the defenses of host organisms, especially their phagocytic cells.
A) endospore
B) sex pilus
C) cell wall
D) capsule d 13) Prokaryotes' essential genetic information is located in the
A) nucleolus.
B) nucleoid.
C) nucleosome.
D) plasmids.
E) exospore. b 14) Which of the following is an important source of endotoxin in gram-negative species?
A) endospore
B) sex pilus
C) flagellum
D) cell wall
E) capsule d 17) Regarding prokaryotic genetics, which statement is correct?
A) Crossing over during prophase I introduces some genetic variation.
B) Prokaryotes feature the union of haploid gametes, as do eukaryotes.
C) Prokaryotes exchange some of their genes by conjugation, the union of haploid gametes, and transduction.
D) Mutation is a primary source of variation in prokaryote populations.
E) Prokaryotes skip sexual life cycles because their life cycle is too short. d 18) Which of these statements about prokaryotes is correct?
A) Bacterial cells conjugate to mutually exchange genetic material.
B) Their genetic material is confined within vesicles known as plasmids.
C) They divide by binary fission, without mitosis or meiosis.
D) The persistence of bacteria throughout evolutionary time is due to their genetic homogeneity (in other words, sameness).
E) Genetic variation in bacteria is not known to occur, because of their asexual mode of reproduction. c 19) Which of the following is least associated with the others?
A) horizontal gene transfer
B) genetic recombination
C) conjugation
D) transformation
E) binary fission e 23) Match the numbered terms to the description that follows. Choose all appropriate terms.
1. autotroph
2. heterotroph
3. phototroph
4. chemotroph an organism that obtains both carbon and energy by ingesting prey
A) 1 only
B) 4 only
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 and 4
E) 1, 3, and 4 d 24) Match the numbered terms to the description that follows. Choose all appropriate terms.
1. autotroph
2. heterotroph
3. phototroph
4. chemotroph an organism that relies on photons to excite electrons within its membranes
A) 1 only
B) 3 only
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 and 4
E) 1, 3, and 4 b 25) Which of the following obtain energy by oxidizing inorganic substancesenergy that is used, in part, to fix
CO₂?
A) photoautotrophs
B) photoheterotrophs
C) chemoautotrophs
D) chemoheterotrophs that perform decomposition
E) parasitic chemoheterotrophs c 28) Which statement about the domain Archaea is true?
A) Genetic prospecting has recently revealed the existence of many previously unknown archaean species.
B) No archaeans can reduce CO₂to methane.
C) The genomes of archaeans are unique, containing no genes that originated within bacteria.
D) No archaeans can inhabit solutions that are nearly 30% salt.
E) No archaeans are adapted to waters with temperatures above the boiling point. a 32) The thermoacidophile, Sulfolobus acidocaldarius, lacks peptidoglycan, but still possesses a cell wall. What is likely to be true of this species?
1. It is a bacterium.
2. It is an archaean.
3. The optimal pH of its enzymes will lie above pH 7.
4. The optimal pH of its enzymes will lie below pH 7.
5. It could inhabit certain hydrothermal springs.
6. It could inhabit alkaline hot springs.
A) 1, 3, and 6
B) 2, 4, and 6
C) 2, 4, and 5
D) 1, 3, and 5
E) 1, 4, and 5 c 75) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) Archaea and bacteria have different membrane lipids.
B) Both archaea and bacteria generally lack membrane-enclosed organelles.
C) The cell walls of archaea lack peptidoglycan.
D) Only bacteria have histones associated with DNA.
E) Only some archaea use CO₂to oxidize H₂
, releasing methane. d 78) Plantlike photosynthesis that releases O₂occurs in
A) cyanobacteria.
B) chlamydias.
C) archaea.
D) actinomycetes.
E) chemoautotrophic bacteria. a chap 29
22) Considering that the mature sporophytes of true mosses get their nutrition from the gametophytes on which they grow, and considering these generations as individual plants, what is true of the relationship between true moss sporophytes and gametophytes?
A) Sporophytes are endosymbionts of gametophytes.
B) Sporophytes are mutualists of gametophytes.
C) Sporophytes are commensalists of gametophytes.
D) Sporophytes are parasites of gametophytes.
D
24) Which of the following is true of the life cycle of mosses?
A) The haploid generation grows on the sporophyte generation.
B) Spores are primarily distributed by water currents.
C) Antheridia and archegonia are produced by gametophytes.
D) The sporophyte generation is dominant.
E) The growing embryo gives rise to the gametophyte.
C
73) Which of the following is a land plant that has flagellated sperm and a sporophyte-dominated life cycle?
A) fern
B) moss
C) liverwort
D) charophyte
E) hornwort
C
Chap 30
2) All of the following cellular structures are functionally important in cells of the gametophytes of both angiosperms and gymnosperms except
A) haploid nuclei.
B) mitochondria.
C) cell walls.
D) chloroplasts.
E) peroxisomes. d 3) The seed coat's most important function is to provide
A) a nonstressful environment for the megasporangium.
B) the means for dispersal.
C) dormancy.
D) a nutrient supply for the embryo.
E) desiccation resistance. e 5) Suppose that the cells of seed plants, like the skin cells of humans, produce a pigment upon increased exposure to UV radiation. Rank the following cells, from greatest to least, in terms of the likelihood of producing this pigment.
1.
2.
3.
4.

cells of sporangium cells in the interior of a subterranean root epidermal cells of sporophyte megaphylls cells of a gametophyte

A) 3, 4, 1, 2
B) 3, 4, 2, 1
C) 3, 1, 4, 2
D) 3, 2, 1, 4
E) 3, 1, 2, 4 c 7) In seed plants, which of the following is part of a pollen grain and has a function most like that of the seed coat? A) sporophyll

B) male gametophyte
C) sporopollenin
D) stigma
E) sporangium c 11) Gymnosperms differ from both extinct and extant (living) ferns because they
A) are woody.
B) have macrophylls.
C) have pollen.
D) have sporophylls.
E) have spores. c 12) Generally, wind pollination is most likely to be found in seed plants that grow
A) close to the ground.
B) in dense, single-species stands.
C) in relative isolation from other members of the same species.
D) along coastlines where prevailing winds blow from the land out to sea.
E) in well-drained soils. b 13) Which of the following statements correctly describes a portion of the pine life cycle?
A) Female gametophytes use mitosis to produce eggs.
B) Seeds are produced in pollen-producing cones.
C) Pollen grains contain female gametophytes.
D) A pollen tube slowly digests its way through the triploid endosperm. a 14) Which of the following statements is true of the pine life cycle?
A) Cones are homologous to the capsules of moss plants.
B) The pine tree is a gametophyte.
C) Male and female gametophytes are in close proximity during gamete synthesis.
D) Conifer pollen grains contain male gametophytes.
E) Double fertilization is a relatively common phenomenon. d 16) Which of the following can be found in gymnosperms?
A) nonfertile flower parts
B) triploid endosperm
C) fruits
D) pollen
E) carpels d 18) Which trait(s) is (are) shared by many modern gymnosperms and angiosperms?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

pollen transported by wind lignified xylem microscopic gametophytes sterile sporophylls, modified to attract pollinators endosperm A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3
C) 1, 2, and 3
D) 1, 3, and 5
E) 2, 4, and 5 c 19) Which structure is common to both gymnosperms and angiosperms?
A) stigma
B) carpel
C) ovule

D) ovary
E) anthers c 24) Which of the following sex and generation combinations most directly produces the pollen tube?
A) male gametophyte
B) female gametophyte
C) male sporophyte
D) female sporophyte a 28) Which of the following is a characteristic of all angiosperms?
A) complete reliance on wind as the pollinating agent
B) double internal fertilization
C) free-living gametophytes
D) carpels that contain microsporangia
E) ovules that are not contained within ovaries b 32) Which of the following are structures of angiosperm gametophytes?
A) immature ovules
B) pollen tubes
C) ovaries
D) stamens
E) sepals b 33) Which of the following statements is true of monocots?
A) They are currently thought to be polyphyletic.
B) The veins of their leaves form a netlike pattern.
C) They, along with the eudicots, magnoliids, and basal angiosperms, are currently placed in the phylum
Anthophyta.
D) Each possesses multiple cotyledons.
E) They are in the clade that includes most of our crops, except the cereal grains. c 99) A fruit is most commonly
A) a mature ovary.
B) a thickened style.
C) an enlarged ovule.
D) a modified root.
E) a mature female gametophyte. a 100) With respect to angiosperms, which of the following is incorrectly paired with its chromosome count?
A) egg–n
B) megaspore–2n
C) microspore–n
D) zygote–2n
E) sperm–n b 101) Which of the following is not a characteristic that distinguishes gymnosperms and angiosperms from other plants? A) alternation of generations
B) ovules
C) integuments
D) pollen
E) dependent gametophytes a 102) Gymnosperms and angiosperms have the following in common except
A) seeds.
B) pollen.

C) vascular tissue.
D) ovaries.
E) ovules. d chap 32
1) Both animals and fungi are heterotrophic. What distinguishes animal heterotrophy from fungal heterotrophy is that only animals derive their nutrition by
A) preying on animals.
B) ingesting it.
C) consuming living, rather than dead, prey.
D) using enzymes to digest their food. b 3) Which of the following is (are) unique to animals?
A) cells that have mitochondria
B) the structural carbohydrate, chitin
C) nervous conduction and muscular movement
D) heterotrophy
E) Two of these responses are correct. c 7) The last common ancestor of all animals was probably a
A) unicellular chytrid.
B) unicellular yeast.
C) multicellular algae.
D) multicellular fungus.
E) flagellated protist. e 8) Evidence of which structure or characteristic would be most surprising to find among fossils of the Ediacaran fauna? A) true tissues
B) hard parts
C) bilateral symmetry
D) cephalization
E) embryos b chap 33(pb ko xuong) chap 34