To What Extent did Appeasement Cause World War 2?
Appeasement was agreeing mostly to Hitler's opinions. There were many reasons why Britain appeased Hitler in the 1930s. For example, by giving Czechoslovakia to Germany.
Hitler sought through the terms of the Treaty of Versailles, which took away most of Germany's territories and inflicted disarmament and reparations. In September (1938), Chamberlain met with Hitler in Munich to settle disagreement over Sudetenland. Hitler's demand that Sudetenland be given to Germany was agreed because it was settled by Germans and would therefore be within the rule of national self-determination. In 1938 Hitler invaded Czechoslovakia and Chamberlain was blamed for not standing up to Hitler.
Secondly, Some officials regarded a powerful Germany as a wall against the Soviet Union. Also Britain thought the T of V was unfair to Germany and Hitler was a reasonable man. Britain was also far away from Sudetenland so when Germany invaded they couldn't help. Britain and France hated fascism and Hitler also hated so they said Hitler would defend. This gave Hitler more chance to demand more.
Many British believed Hitler's policies so when he said he was going invade Czechoslovakia they didn't do anything.Britain and France gave Germany a chance to invade other countries because they liked Hitler opinions and he could defend them.
Germany was becoming the strongest country, and the appeasement of Britain related to this problem so much. Why? Because Britain didn't (not couldn't) rule Germany and actually Hitler got more power. It means the WWⅡ was coming from here because Hitler made the WWⅡ directly. I think the Appeasement was a big mistake of Britain and I want to give four specific reasons. But before that, I want to give both sides of examples to look at the appeasement widely. Was the Munich agreement right or wrong? A positive side can say it made UK prepare or pretend the WWⅡbecause it could guess the WWⅡ was coming. It also means Britain could save deaths. Actually, Hitler
Hitler sought through the terms of the Treaty of Versailles, which took away most of Germany's territories and inflicted disarmament and reparations. In September (1938), Chamberlain met with Hitler in Munich to settle disagreement over Sudetenland. Hitler's demand that Sudetenland be given to Germany was agreed because it was settled by Germans and would therefore be within the rule of national self-determination. In 1938 Hitler invaded Czechoslovakia and Chamberlain was blamed for not standing up to Hitler.
Secondly, Some officials regarded a powerful Germany as a wall against the Soviet Union. Also Britain thought the T of V was unfair to Germany and Hitler was a reasonable man. Britain was also far away from Sudetenland so when Germany invaded they couldn't help. Britain and France hated fascism and Hitler also hated so they said Hitler would defend. This gave Hitler more chance to demand more.
Many British believed Hitler's policies so when he said he was going invade Czechoslovakia they didn't do anything.Britain and France gave Germany a chance to invade other countries because they liked Hitler opinions and he could defend them.
Germany was becoming the strongest country, and the appeasement of Britain related to this problem so much. Why? Because Britain didn't (not couldn't) rule Germany and actually Hitler got more power. It means the WWⅡ was coming from here because Hitler made the WWⅡ directly. I think the Appeasement was a big mistake of Britain and I want to give four specific reasons. But before that, I want to give both sides of examples to look at the appeasement widely. Was the Munich agreement right or wrong? A positive side can say it made UK prepare or pretend the WWⅡbecause it could guess the WWⅡ was coming. It also means Britain could save deaths. Actually, Hitler