2. Consent is thought to be morally transformative of people's conduct toward each other. Where sex is concerned, it is all but universally regarded as necessary to make sexual conduct legitimate. But the question is then, is consent also sufficient? Discuss both 'yes' and 'no' answers to this question, using Soble, Wertheimer, West and/or Primoratz. Finally, which seems the best supported answer? TAKE OUT HEADINGS AND ADD A COVER PAGE
I will begin this paper in support of the liberal theory recognized on sexual
morality being upheld that whatever is consented to will be permissible, thus what is not consented will be impermissible. I also support that the consenting participants should be competent and well informed without coercion or explotiation Consent as morally transformative means the one is capable of authorizing or legitimating other’s behavior one of three criteria stated by Alan Wertheimer section below. An overall society norm of consent by a participant in sexual relations is that it is necessary for morality compliance. Furthermore consent will additionally be under consideration in regards to it being morally sufficient.
Igor Primoratz in his work ‘Sexual Morality: Is Consent Enough?” approaches three philosophical views that reflect that same theory in regards to validating a consensual sex encounter. Consensual participating partners in sex relations inadequately validate a sexual encounter as moral. The three views are as follows: the Catholic view of sex as ordained for procreation and properly confined to marriage, the romantic view of sex as bound up with love, and the radical feminist analysis of sex in our society as part and parcel of the domination of woman by men. Regardless it is predominatly agreed that valid consent is necessary in sex. But sufficient consent in sexual acts will not morally legitmize it. Mary Geach’s recent statement of the procreation view, Roger Scrutons theory of sexual desire as naturally...
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