Aristotle's Authorization Of Slavery

Aristotle a Greek philosopher born in Macedonia in 394 BC has different forms of viewing politics. He describes the polis, or city, as a koinonia, or political association, and he proclaims that all relations, like all thoughtful human acts, are shaped with the objective of accomplishing a particular good. He says that being part of a polis is the only way someone can be a part of a great life. Because politics are necessary for this Aristotle says, "Man is by nature a political animal."(Aristotle 90). As part of the books discussion of the economy a city-state needs, Aristotle defends the system of private property and argues against extreme capitalism and says that slavery is necessary in order for society to function and democracy as being
Authorization of slavery by nature is not justified correctly Aristotle did not write exactly why nature consents some people to servitude and not others. Human nature is one and as humans we all have rights, unless someone wants to voluntarily relinquish their rights. Therefore I believe there should be no tolerance for slavery. Aristotle says that defining someone is a violation of nature but also says that slaves are equal to ‘masters’. In my perspective this is a clear violation of nature unless the person gets to choose to be a slave and likes the job one should not be punished to do that for the rest of his life. Slaves are considered to be property, they work for someone that buys and owns them to do certain labor. This is not entitled to be beneficial for both parties as he specifies. One thing I did not agree with Jowett the author, was that he thought percentage was bad, because “money using percentage born themselves, which is contrary to nature”, in the times or Aristotle percentage was seen as evil because economics was not engraved in peoples mindset but it is not evil. Another thing that stood out to me is when Aristotle said “as we have righteous people in power, they would give the power voluntarily to people more virtuous.” (Aristotle 258.) This I believe is absurd because people would not voluntarily waive privileges to someone
Aristotle truly believed that politics was a science that could be understood in the same way as anatomy or physics. Because of that he wrote this book to help people create a better more stable state. He starts by explaining the way in which a household is like a small state and clarifying the rules that must be put into place in regards to women, children and slaves all of which he seen as less than people with purpose. After dealing with this he begins his description of the different types of states, which he divides into six main primary forms. The first three that he would describe as proper states are monarchy, aristocracy and constitutional government. After that he describes the three corrupted forms as tyranny, oligarchy, and democracy. Monarchy is when one person who is the best in the state rules under the law for the sake of his citizens. This government though is often corrupted into tyranny where one person through strength holds his equals or betters below himself for his own benefit. Aristocracy is when the people who are above average join together to wisely run the state so that it might prosper. Often though it degrades into oligarchy where the power is all in the hands of a few who use the power to try maintain their position. Constitutional government is when people willingly submit to wise laws, which are put together to help the state. Democracy is its corrupted form