The outbreak of war in Europe in 1914 was due to an aggressive German foreign policy which had been waged since c.1900.
‘The outbreak of war in Europe in 1914 was due to an aggressive German foreign policy which had been waged since c.1900.’
How far do you agree with this opinion? Explain your answer using the evidence in Sources V, W and X and your own knowledge of the issues relating to the controversy.
It’s debatable whether Germany’s foreign policy created long term tension which led to the outbreak of World War 1 in 1914. The argument commonly raised is whether this movement was aggressive or defensive and how this stemmed from c.1900. Berghahn’s representation argues that it was both domestic and foreign policies which led to war however not from as early as c.1900. Blackburn’s representation counters this and states it was in fact international tensions prior to c.1900 which created the war; despite the fact it states their actions were defensive. Lastly Moses’ representation suggests it was not just Germany to blame and Austria were also partly responsible. Berghahn’s argument is the strongest as it has a clear argument and both supports and challenges the claim. Overall it’s clear the outbreak of the war was caused by Germany’s aggressive foreign policy in the long term since c.1900.
The strongest representation agrees with the given statement in that the aggressive foreign policy was responsible. Blackbourn states that long term aggression since the 1890s did lead to the war, and that the admiral Tirpitz built the battle fleet, purposely ‘aimed at the British’ suggesting an aggressive attitude. In 1898 a new naval law proceeded through Flottenpolitik by Tirpitz suggesting a larger navy is necessary to defend and prevent war with opposing fleets. This competition with Britain continued and in 1906 the naval race reached a new level when the British created the HMS Dreadnaught, a new battleship which carried 10, 12 inch guns. This suggests long term international tension created through the naval race which stemmed prior to 1900, agreeing with the statement.
How far do you agree with this opinion? Explain your answer using the evidence in Sources V, W and X and your own knowledge of the issues relating to the controversy.
It’s debatable whether Germany’s foreign policy created long term tension which led to the outbreak of World War 1 in 1914. The argument commonly raised is whether this movement was aggressive or defensive and how this stemmed from c.1900. Berghahn’s representation argues that it was both domestic and foreign policies which led to war however not from as early as c.1900. Blackburn’s representation counters this and states it was in fact international tensions prior to c.1900 which created the war; despite the fact it states their actions were defensive. Lastly Moses’ representation suggests it was not just Germany to blame and Austria were also partly responsible. Berghahn’s argument is the strongest as it has a clear argument and both supports and challenges the claim. Overall it’s clear the outbreak of the war was caused by Germany’s aggressive foreign policy in the long term since c.1900.
The strongest representation agrees with the given statement in that the aggressive foreign policy was responsible. Blackbourn states that long term aggression since the 1890s did lead to the war, and that the admiral Tirpitz built the battle fleet, purposely ‘aimed at the British’ suggesting an aggressive attitude. In 1898 a new naval law proceeded through Flottenpolitik by Tirpitz suggesting a larger navy is necessary to defend and prevent war with opposing fleets. This competition with Britain continued and in 1906 the naval race reached a new level when the British created the HMS Dreadnaught, a new battleship which carried 10, 12 inch guns. This suggests long term international tension created through the naval race which stemmed prior to 1900, agreeing with the statement.