eth1. What is the point of showing Lady Macbeth's insanity--her repetitive handwashing and other symptoms of distraction--in a play with supernatural events and "causes" that are so obviously meant to be taken seriously? Why is it Lady Macbeth who suffers this fate while Macbeth does not? And how does Macbeth take the death of his beloved wife? The purpose of showing Lady Macbeth’s insanity is to show the changes within her. The repetitive handwashing act contrasts with her saying of “A little water clears us of this deed” (II. II, 64) In the beginning of the story, Lady Macbeth is ‘aggressive’ and encourages Macbeth to commit the evil deeds, but she soon regrets and suffers from it. Lady Macbeth is one one who suffers this fate is because she regrets of what she has done, like the doctor says “Infected minds To their deaf pillows will discharge their secrets.”(V, I, 50-51), the one who feels guilty would suffer from what they have done. However, Macbeth does not suffer from this because he does not regret, nor feel guilty about what he has done. Macbeth takes the death of his beloved wife as an expected tragedy. Macbeth says “And all our yesterdays have lighted fools The way to dusty death.” (V, V, 22-23), it means that what they have done before leads them closer to death day by day. The face that Lady Macbeth suffers and regrets hints the death of her. 2. As it happens, Malcolm brings "Great Birnam Wood to High Dunsinane Hill" and Macduff reveals that he was "not of woman born" but was instead "from ...[his] mother's womb untimely ripped. But how is the manner of these fulfilments ironic, considering the significance Macbeth attached to them when he heard them during his second meeting with the Weird Sisters?
These events are ironic because Macbeth was confident to himself and assumed the prophecies were favoring him without considering the negative sides of them. Macbeth said “…Macduff: what need I fear of thee?” (IV, I, 89) when he heard the...
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