1. What might have led to Ophelia’s downfall was that she intentionally killed herself to maybe save herself from any further shame that would fall upon her because she has been dishonored by Hamlet and she might be possibly “with child” and also to the loss of her father. In Act 1 Scene 3 pg.45, Ophelia tells her father that Hamlet has proclaimed his love to her, and then in Act 2 Scene 1 pg.79, she tells him that Hamlet has gone crazy and was acting as such when he entered her room all disheveled. In Act 3 Scene 1 pg.131, Hamlet had blown up on Ophelia and telling her that she is a whore and that she needed to get herself to a nunnery. Yelling at her and dishonoring her by that which she was being called. She was also being confused and slightly dishonored by Hamlet when they were watching the play in Act 3 Scene2 pg. 143. The last straw was when Hamlet had killed her father, the only person who had been there for her and seemed to be helping her. 2. My opinion of Ophelia’s downfall did not change because of the movie, if anything it helped me to understand what was happening and strengthen my opinion by giving me the visual examples that I needed. In the David Tenant film, Ophelia was portrayed that she has gone completely mad since Hamlet has dishonored her because he does not come to her anymore, she also has gone completely mad as a result of her father’s death by Hamlet. The Olivia Karter film, had her messing with a guard and talking to herself about how Hamlet is not coming to her anymore, and she seems to have become mentally insane. 3. The Article claims that”…in the medieval romances, a parley typically followed a declaration of love until love freely proffered was freely returned.” In the play, Hamlet had professed his love to Ophelia but Ophelia did not profess her love in return for him, since her father told her not to. This might explain why Hamlet went all crazy on her; he did not receive the same...
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