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Why Did Racism Occur Before The 1600's

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Why Did Racism Occur Before The 1600's
1)
Although racism as we know it is relatively new, I do believe it existed before the
1600’s
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1700’s. In certain ways, it’s part of our political culture. Our identities are shaped by race. Therefore there must have been a certain way to determine the differe nce between other cultures and ethnicities.
Race separated people as inferior to superior with only color as separation. As we know, racism is relatively new but that doesn’t mean it didn’t exist before.
It may not have been used negatively before we disco vered it existed. However, that doesn’t mean it was never used for different purposes such as culture, skill, etc.
2)
Many developing countries go through their own stages of development. They create through their own culture,
…show more content…
States fail to set high expectations for students learning about slavery as outlined in their content standards.
Students can’t possibly grasp the g ravity of the Civil
Rights Movement or the genesis of the Black Lives Matter movements, without being grounded in the history of slavery.
6)
Article 3
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(China’s Race Problem)
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Ethnocentrism and color prejudice can be found in virtually all human societies, going back centuries if not thousands of years. While slavery is an ancient institution; the racial slavery that took hold in the Americans in that era was new and very unusual. It was vitally important that the enslaved be regarded as subhuman, lest the w hole corrupt edifice completely collapse. Even now, Americans are dealing with the scarring effects of this monstrous ideological project. After decades of breakneck economic growth,
South Korea has joined the ranks of the world’s richest and most powerful states. Labor market rigidities had led to high youth unemployment rates.
Over 50 years since the beginning of the guest worker initiative, Germany is still struggling to deal with its growing population of ethnic outsiders.
Many
Koreans

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