Khrushchev simply wanted to protect a new and vulnerable communist state. How valid is this explanation of soviet policy towards Cuba in the period 1960-63? Hypothesis/Assumption made by question:
Khrushchev had been sincere and altruistic in his attempts in wanting to secure the sovereignty of vulnerable Cuba, even before Castro turned communist in 1961. However, this was only true for the outbreak prior to the crisis. Throughout the development part of the crisis, we encounter a more aggressive Soviet policy which played a prominent role in determining the course of the crisis. Furthermore, to refer to Cuba as a ‘new and vulnerable communist state’ is oversimplifying the state of affairs at that time. Castro’s practice of dollar imperialism on US’s assets and businesses had triggered an adverse reaction from United States and throughout the development of the crisis we encounter instances upon which Castro had manipulated tensions between the superpowers to accede to his own self-interest. Additionally, USA had misperceived Castro’s actions as one that is being directed by USSR, and therefore constituted an international onslaught. In reality, it is safe to conclude that for Cuba, largely there was no onslaught as it was USA that had heavily orchestrated the crisis, and Soviet involvement in Cuba was more of a defensive opportunity than the intention of spreading communism. Introduction (aims to address the scope of the essay):
Acknowledge that hypothesis is only valid for the outbreak of CMC Agree:
Address USSR’s opportunistic involvement was originally, solely instigated by Castro’s own initiative and was largely driven by Castro’s need to protect Cuba from USA’s series of aggressive actions Initiated/Drew in Soviet involvements:
Trade relations with Soviet were provocative, turning communist knowing very well US policy towards communist in the Western Hemisphere. Asked for Soviet help when being ousted by USA; asked USSR to place missiles in Cuba only...
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