Kant

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Explain the difference between transcendental realism (using Leibniz and Hume as examples) and Kant’s transcendental idealism. Why does Kant call his turn to transcendental idealism a “Copernican Revolution”. Transcendental realism claims that the world exists independently of human subjectivity. It also claims that the human thought or perception has no influence and does not effect the way world exists and cannot be interpreted by the way people interpret it. Transcendental realism relies on the assumption that objects are mind-independent, that is, that the mind does not make the object what it is. For the transcendental realist there is a huge difference between subject and object. According to Hume, the ways we percieve things are by senses and Leibniz sees it as through reason. Leibniz embraced transcendental realism, believing that God made the world as it is and that the world would exists as it is regardless of the way humans might percieve it. He also believed that humans can have necessary knowlege of the world and that people can also dicover thruth of reason throught thinking and that the structure of the human mind mirrows the structure of the world. Hume also embraced transcendental realism , believing that the constitution of the world doesn't depend on human thought or perception. Leibniz believed that by examining one’s mind one could gain knowledge of one’s mind, the metaphysical realm, and thereby knowledge of the structure of the world, although a rational world. Hume however, rejected Leibniz's dogmatic assumption that the human mind mirrors the world. Hume acknowledged that we are aware of certain necessary truth not related to experience, but he believed that these thruths are truths bout the structure of a person's mind and not about he external world. He thought the only way we can have knowledge about the world is through our senses. Hume came tho the conclusion that the knowledge we gain about our senses is

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