ASCP: Study Questions

Topics: Blood, Hematology, Red blood cell Pages: 20 (5788 words) Published: November 22, 2013
1. Procedure #1 detected 50/100 true positives and 100/100 true negatives.  Procedure #2 detected 80/100 true positives and 70/100 true negatives. b. procedure 2 is more sensitive
2. TP/TP+FN = ?
b. specificity
3. What might the following indicate?
urine: RBCs, WBCs, nitrite, bacteria
a. pyelonephritis
4. Why is albumin the first protein to be detected in tests for renal failure? b. its molecular size is smallest
5. Cortisol excess will result in _____
a. hypernatremia
c. elevated glucose levels in blood
6. What is the reason for this discrepancy or What would you do to resolve this discrepancy?   Patient cells                                        Patient serum anti-A   anti-B                                     A cells    B cells     3+           3+                                            1+               0  This is a reverse group discrepancy, most likely to a subgroup of A. comment?

A2 subgroup is most commonly seen in patients that are AB, about 25% of them make anti-A1.  So this is most likely due to A2B patient making anti-A1 Resolve by incubating at room temp 15 min

7. This spiral-form organism is seen in urine and cultured on Fletcher’s media b. Leptospira
8. Organism that gives off a bleach-like odor in culture?
b. Eikenella
9. Presence of rheumatoid factor in blood may result in false positives for what test? a. VDRL
10. Disease associated with the following results? Elevated TSH; Elevated T3; Elevated free T4 b. hyperthyroidism
Pituitary tumor
11. If excess PTH is being released, what would you find in elevated amounts in serum? a. Calcium
12. Mucoid, pink colonies on plate; produces gas; indole (+). On TSI tube you see yellow on the slant and yellow in the deep. What organism is this? b. E. coli
13. PAD (+); indole (+); organism stains gram negative. What is it? a. P. vulgaris
14. You see a curved gram negative bacilli. It was cultured from the GI tract of a person with ulcers. What test would you do next to confirm its identity? a. Urease
15. Enzyme controls run on a machine give results around -3 standard deviations. Samples run on the same machine give results of less than 1 standard deviation. What could be the problem? b. controls were left at room temp

16. HIV-1 & HIV-2 combination ELISA test is positive in a patient with symptoms of immune deficiency. Western blot was inconclusive for HIV-1. What do you do next? The FDA states that if an HIV1/2 ELISA is postive and a subsequent HIV-1 Western blot is negative or inconclusive, and ELISA for HIV-2 should be performed only if there are no symptoms…but, in this case the patient has immune deficiency symptoms, so an HIV-2 Western Blot test should be performed. d. do HIV-2 western blot

17. Steps of PCR?
c. denaturation, annealing, transcription
18. RAST test detects what?
a. IgE to particular antigens
19. After collecting a blood sample in an EDTA tube, you find that the Hematocrit is very high (67%). What should you do next? a. collect blood again, but use less sodium citrate in the tube 20.  When you conduct a procedure using fluorescence, it’s important to protect yourself from the: b. emitted light

21. Blood was collected on Nov 1. Blood was then frozen in glycerol on Nov 5. What should the expiration date read? c. Nov 1; 10 years from now
22. A person was successfully treated for syphilis 12 years ago. However, he has just come in again, worried about having been reinfected. What would you look for in his blood? b. VDRL
23. You suspect someone might have Jka, K and c antigens on their red cells. You figure out that they don’t have Jka. You also test their serum and see the following:                                                 reagent K cells                         reagent c cells patient serum:                               0                                                     4+ What can you conclude?

d. rule out c but cannot confirm the presence or absence of K 24. Reagent strip detected no proteins but...
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