Study Guide Exam 1
BIG PICTURE
Why are some countries rich and other countries poor? What do economists say about this question? Is this question even appropriate to ask? Can answering it tell us anything about today? Is there any value in asking it? Explain.
What do the arguments of Diamond, Landes, Acemoglu, and Easterlin have in common in approaching the question, “Why are some countries rich and other countries poor?” What are the differences? Are there weaknesses in some arguments filled in by other arguments? Can any argument alone explain the large question(s)? Do they have any explanatory power together?
CAMERON AND NEAL CHAPTER 1
What is the difference between economic growth and economic development? Explain.What are the relationships between output, output per capita, and productivity? Do economies with more people produce more output? Do economies with more people produce more output per person? Explain.
DIAMOND (1999)
How does Diamond answer his question: “How did the farmers win out over the famous [nomadic, hunter-gatherer] warriors?” Explain.
In Diamond's view, why did some societies develop “farm power,” whereas others did not? Explain.
What is Diamond’s explanation (implied in these chapters) for why Eurasia dominated the globe? Explain.
Are there any problems with Diamond’s explanation? Explain.
LANDES (1999)
According to Landes, how did Europe’s classical (Greco-Roman) legacy, Germanic tribal law and custom, and Judeo-Christian tradition provide support for the institutions that protect private property after the collapse of the Roman empire? Explain.
In Landes’s view, how did Europe’s political fragmentation set it on a different long-run development trajectory in contrast to Asian empires (e.g. China)? Explain.
According to Landes, why were the Islamic world and China unable maintain the same pace of innovation and invention as Europe in the early modern period? In his view, why was Europe more innovative? Explain.
Are there any problems
Why are some countries rich and other countries poor? What do economists say about this question? Is this question even appropriate to ask? Can answering it tell us anything about today? Is there any value in asking it? Explain.
What do the arguments of Diamond, Landes, Acemoglu, and Easterlin have in common in approaching the question, “Why are some countries rich and other countries poor?” What are the differences? Are there weaknesses in some arguments filled in by other arguments? Can any argument alone explain the large question(s)? Do they have any explanatory power together?
CAMERON AND NEAL CHAPTER 1
What is the difference between economic growth and economic development? Explain.What are the relationships between output, output per capita, and productivity? Do economies with more people produce more output? Do economies with more people produce more output per person? Explain.
DIAMOND (1999)
How does Diamond answer his question: “How did the farmers win out over the famous [nomadic, hunter-gatherer] warriors?” Explain.
In Diamond's view, why did some societies develop “farm power,” whereas others did not? Explain.
What is Diamond’s explanation (implied in these chapters) for why Eurasia dominated the globe? Explain.
Are there any problems with Diamond’s explanation? Explain.
LANDES (1999)
According to Landes, how did Europe’s classical (Greco-Roman) legacy, Germanic tribal law and custom, and Judeo-Christian tradition provide support for the institutions that protect private property after the collapse of the Roman empire? Explain.
In Landes’s view, how did Europe’s political fragmentation set it on a different long-run development trajectory in contrast to Asian empires (e.g. China)? Explain.
According to Landes, why were the Islamic world and China unable maintain the same pace of innovation and invention as Europe in the early modern period? In his view, why was Europe more innovative? Explain.
Are there any problems