Operation Management

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  • Topic: Manufacturing resource planning, Moving average, Material requirements planning
  • Pages : 14 (3433 words )
  • Download(s) : 328
  • Published : December 13, 2010
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1.
Which of the following best describes the strategic importance of short-term scheduling? A) Effective scheduling, through lower costs, faster delivery, and more dependable schedules, can provide a competitive advantage. B) Effective scheduling is a tactical tool for increasing demand to meet production. C) Forward scheduling looks to future demand levels in order to increase customer satisfaction. D) Aggregate planning is a tactical action, but short-term scheduling is strategic because of its immense impact on costs. E) Short-term scheduling matches capacity to demand during the short term, three to eighteen months into the future. 2.

The three components that can lead to competitive advantage through effective scheduling are: A) aggregate planning, intermediate scheduling, and medium-term planning. B) forward scheduling, real-time scheduling, and backward scheduling. C) the item master file, the routing file, and the work-center master file. D) lower costs, faster delivery, and more dependable schedules. E) Gantt charts, Johnson's rule and the Pareto principle.

3.
A firm uses graphical techniques in its aggregate planning efforts. Over the next twelve months (its intermediate period) it estimates the sum of demands to be 105,000 units. The firm has 250 production days per year. In January, which has 22 production days, demand is estimated to be 11,000 units. A graph of demand versus level production will show that: A) the January requirement is below level production of 420 units. B) level production is approximately 1000 units per day.

C) level production of 420 units per day is below the January requirement. D) level production is approximately 420 units per month.
E) the firm must hire workers between December and January.
4.
Which of the following statements regarding finite capacity scheduling (FCS) is false? A) Finite capacity scheduling allows delivery needs to be balanced against efficiency. B) Finite capacity scheduling overcomes the disadvantages of systems based exclusively on rules. C) Finite capacity scheduling allows virtually instantaneous change by operators. D) Finite capacity scheduling software formalizes the same data needed in any manual system. E) None; all of the above are true.

5.
The number of kanbans is:
A) one.
B) the ratio of the reorder point to container size.
C) the same as EOQ.
D) one full day's production.
E) none of the above.
6.
Which of the following techniques is not a technique for dealing with a bottleneck? A) Schedule throughput to match capacity of the bottleneck.
B) Increase capacity of the constraint.
C) Have cross-trained employees available to keep the constraint at full operation. D) Develop alternate routings.
E) All are tools for dealing with bottlenecks.
7.
A master production schedule (MPS) calls for 110 units of Product M. There are currently 30 of Product M on hand. Each M requires 4 of Component N. There are 20 units of N on hand. The net requirements for N are: A) 150.

B) 170.
C) 300.
D) 320.
E) 440.
8.
Dependence on an external source of supply is found in which of the following aggregate planning strategies? A) Varying production rates through overtime or idle time
B) Subcontracting
C) Using part-time workers
D) Back ordering during high demand periods
E) Hiring and laying off
9.
           Five jobs are waiting to be processed. Their processing times and due dates are given below. Using the shortest processing time dispatching rule, in which order should the jobs be processed? |Job |Processing Time (days) |Job due date (days) | |A |4 |7 | |B |7 |4 | |C |8 |11 | |D |3 |5 | |E |5 |8...
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