Did shakespeark use archaic englsih

Did Shakespeare Consciously Use Archaic English ? A question that no one can really guarantee is if Shakespeare had used archaic English consciously. In some cases It seems as if he may have used archaic English purposely. In other cases It seems that he used archaic English unconsciously. So the simples answer is yes and no. I feel some of the vocabulary he uses could have been what people said in the past which are not common words no more . But I don’t believe all the archaic words where common words in the past . Like said in the report “Did Shakespeare Consciously Use Archaic English?” Shakespeare did extract archaisms from variables phrases such as “maugre his head” which hints that he maybe did use archaic English purposely . Than in other cases I feel he probably used archaic English unconsciously like when he used “teen” or “ween.” In Romeo and Juliet he uses the term amerce in the sentence “ I’ll amerce you with so strong a fine “ In this sentence I feel he used it unconsciously , being because that word is common and he frequently uses the word . Also in Romeo And Juliet he uses the term pernicious which means deadly . I feel in this situation he used it purposely for the sake of using an older term. Another term I feel that was consciously used would be exquisite used in the sentence “To call hers exquisite , in question more “ the word simply means beauty or charm again he could of used the word beauty but for the sake of the play he used a different term. The reason I think he used archaic English was so that he could be unique and have a different overall tone to his plays and stories . I think everyone one can say that he used archaic English in a good way being why he was so successful in his career .