(How does Aristotle justify the existence of Slavery?)
Aristotle was one of the greatest philosophical minds of ancient Greece. He is one of the most important founding figures in Western philosophy and his writings were the first to create a comprehensive system of Western philosophy, encompassing morality and aesthetics, logic and science, politics and metaphysics. Even though there were a lot of things happening during his time, and he wrote as much as he could before his time on this earth was up, Aristotle wrote about an issue that has been around as the early 8000 BC during the time of the Pharaohs of Egypt, and that topic is Slavery.
Slavery is defined in the Dictionary as “a system under which people are treated as property and are forced to work”. Although there are many points in History where all forms of slavery have been used, over time, it has gone from something that was generally accepted to something that is atrocious. Aristotle himself viewed owners of slaves and slaves themselves as two completely different people with different rankings in society. He viewed his perspective as “A man chooses, a slave obeys”. But is a man not entitled to the sweat on his brow? He believed that the way the word was used in context helped define what slave should really mean.
We all make choices, but in the end, our choices make us. Does that mean that some people willingly chose to be slaves? Of course ,not. Was the choice to become a slave made for some people by others? History tells us yes. Nature does not tell a man and a slave apart; the answer to that is based on the ignorance and arrogance the human race carries in their DNA. The slaves, in time, would begin an uprising against their supposed masters and owners, and would eventually begin to demand proper treatment and equality. In the years to come, slavery still continues to exist in a much more acceptable form; paid labor. However, some jobs, such as mine, require us...
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