Advanced Biology Final Exam: Question Pape

Advanced Biology Final Exam / Fall 2011

Short Answer

1. Which of the following is a false statement regarding deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?

2. Which of the following properties or processes do we associate with living things?

3. Which component is not directly involved in translation?

4. The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is

5. Which of the following types of mutation, resulting in an error in the mRNA just after the AUG start of translation, is likely to have the most serious effect on the polypeptide product?

6. Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of protein's activity?

7. Once transcribed, eukaryotic mRNA typically undergoes substantial alteration that includes

8. What are the coding segments of a stretch of eukaryotic DNA called?

9. The TATA sequence is found only several nucleotides away from the start site of transcription. This most probably relates to which of the following?

10. The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume all of the following except

11. What is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands of DNA molecules are synthesized?

12. E. coli cells grown on 15N medium are transferred to 14N medium and allowed to grow for two more generations (two rounds of DNA replication). DNA extracted from these cells is centrifuged. What density distribution of DNA would you expect in this experiment?

13. The leading and the lagging strands differ in that

14. What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?

15. What kind of chemical bond is found between paired bases of the DNA double helix?

16. Which of the following can be determined directly from X-ray diffraction photographs of crystallized DNA?

17. Which of the following investigators was/were responsible for the following discovery? In DNA from any species, the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine.

18. In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts?

19. In his transformation experiments, what did Griffith observe?

20. A pedigree analysis for a given disorder's occurrence in a family shows that, although both parents of an affected child are normal, each of the parents has had affected relatives with the same condition. The disorder is then which of the following?

21. A man with Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY) is expected to have any of the following EXCEPT

22. Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is not correct?

23. A cell divides to produce two daughter cells that are genetically different.

24. The fact that all seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of independent assortment most probably indicates which of the following?

25. Chromatids are separated from each other.

26. Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?

27. What is the difference between a monohybrid cross and a dihybrid cross?

28. Huntington's disease is a dominant condition with late age of onset in humans. If one parent has the disease, what is the probability that his or her child will have the disease?

29. Which describes the ABO blood group system?

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant characteristic.

30. A 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio in the generation of a monohybrid cross is a sign of

31. Mendel's second law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the following events of meiosis I?

32. When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?

33. Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. This suggests

For the following questions, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below.

I. Prophase|V. Prophase II|
II. Metaphase I|VI. Metaphase II|
III. Anaphase I|VII. Anaphase II|
IV. Telophase I|VIII. Telophase II|

34. Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?

35. After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is

36. The human X and Y chromosomes

37. When blood glucose level rises, the pancreas secretes insulin, and as a result blood glucose level declines. When blood glucose level is low, the pancreas secretes glucagon, and as a result blood glucose level rises. Such regulation of blood glucose level is the result of

38. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common?

39. If a cell has 8 chromosomes at metaphase of mitosis, how many chromosomes will it have during anaphase?

40. If mammalian cells receive a go-ahead signal at the checkpoint, they will

41. What is a chromatid?

42. Which term describes centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells?

43. Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of four cell divisions would produce an early embryo with how many cells?

44. Where is ATP synthase located in the mitochondrion?

45. A plant has a unique photosynthetic pigment. The leaves of this plant appear to be reddish yellow. What wavelengths of visible light are being absorbed by this pigment?

46. The molecule that functions as the reducing agent (electron donor) in a redox or oxidation-reduction reaction

47. What is a karyotype?

Figure 10.1

48. Figure 10.1 shows the absorption spectrum for chlorophyll a and the action spectrum for photosynthesis. Why are they different?

49. Asexual reproduction results in identical offspring unless which of the following occurs?

50. When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a by-product of which of the following?

51. Most from catabolism is released during

52. DNA is replicated at this time of the cell cycle:

53. During glycolysis, when glucose is catabolized to pyruvate, most of the energy of glucose is

54. Starting with one molecule of glucose, the "net" products of glycolysis are

55. Which of the following statements describes NAD?

56. Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is true?

57. According to the induced fit hypothesis of enzyme catalysis, which of the following is correct?

58. For living organisms, which of the following is an important consequence of the first law of thermodynamics?

59. How does a noncompetitive inhibitor decrease the rate of an enzyme reaction?

60. Which of the following is true for all exergonic reactions?

61. Chromosomes first become visible during which phase of mitosis?

62. A solution of starch at room temperature does not readily decompose to form a solution of simple sugars because

63. The active site of an enzyme is the region that

Use the diagram of the U-tube in Figure 7.2 to answer the questions that follow.

The solutions in the two arms of this U-tube are separated by a membrane that is permeable to water and glucose but not to sucrose. Side A is half filled with a solution of 2 M sucrose and 1 M glucose. Side B is half filled with 1 M sucrose and 2 M glucose. Initially, the liquid levels on both sides are equal.

Figure 7.2

64. A patient has had a serious accident and lost a lot of blood. In an attempt to replenish body fluids, distilled water, equal to the volume of blood lost, is transferred directly into one of his veins. What will be the most probable result of this transfusion?

65. During aerobic respiration, electrons travel downhill in which sequence?

66. When muscle cells undergo anaerobic respiration, they become fatigued and painful. This is now known to be caused by

67. Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains?

68. Charles Darwin proposed a mechanism for descent with modification which stated that organisms of a particular species are adapted to their environment when they possess

69. Why is it important that an experiment include a control group?

70. About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these 25 elements make up approximately 96% of living matter?

71. What is the approximate atomic mass of an atom with 16 neutrons, 15 protons, and 15 electrons? (N.B : 1 dalton = 1 a.m.u.)

72. H is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen. One difference between hydrogen-1 (H) and hydrogen-3 (H) is that hydrogen-3 has

73. A covalent chemical bond is one in which

74. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds an element with atomic number 8 can make with hydrogen?

75. What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds?

76. Which of the following results from a transfer of electron(s) between atoms?

77. Which of the following explains most specifically the attraction of water molecules to one another?

78. In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by

79. What gives rise to the cohesiveness of water molecules?

80. Water's high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the

81. Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are

82. What is the pH of a solution with a hydroxyl ion [OH] concentration of 10 M?

83. If the pH of a solution is decreased from 9 to 8, it means that the

84. Which of the following statements is true about buffer solutions?

85. Pure, freshly-distilled water has a pH of 7. This means that

86. Organic chemistry is a science based on the study of

87. One of the following people set up a closed system to mimic Earth's early atmosphere and discharged electrical sparks through it. A variety of organic compounds common in organisms were formed. Who did this?

88. Which of the following statements best describes the carbon atoms present in a seed-eating bird?

89.

Figure 4.3
The two molecules shown in Figure 4.3 are best described as

90. Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?

The following questions refer to the structures shown in Figure 4.5.

Figure 4.5

91. Which of the structures is an impossible covalently bonded molecule?

92. Which of the following is not a polymer?

93. What is the chemical mechanism by which cells make polymers from monomers?

94. Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?

95. Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified?

96. A molecule with the formula is probably a

97. Which of the following is true regarding saturated fatty acids?

98.

Figure 5.2

Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated in Figure 5.2?

99. The α helix and the β pleated sheet are both common polypeptide forms found in which level of protein structure?

100. At which level of protein structure are interactions between the side chains (R groups) most important?

101. The function of each protein is a consequence of its specific shape. What is the term used for a change in a protein's three-dimensional shape or conformation due to disruption of hydrogen bonds, disulfide bridges, or ionic bonds?

102. Which of the following best describes the flow of information in eukaryotic cells?

103. Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides?

104. Which of the following are nitrogenous bases of the pyrimidine type?

105. Which of the following statements best summarizes the structural differences between DNA and RNA?

106. All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except

107. Under which of the following conditions would you expect to find a cell with a predominance of free ribosomes?

108. In animal cells, hydrolytic enzymes are packaged to prevent general destruction of cellular components. Which of the following organelles functions in this compartmentalization?

109. Which is one of the main energy transformers of cells?

110. Organelles other than the nucleus that contain DNA include

111. A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitochondria. It could be a cell from

112. Cyanide binds with at least one molecule involved in producing ATP. If a cell is exposed to cyanide, most of the cyanide would be found within the

113. Which of these is the most common compound in the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria?

114. Penicillin is an antibiotic that inhibits enzymes from catalyzing the synthesis of peptidoglycan, so which prokaryotes should be most vulnerable to inhibition by penicillin?

115. Which of the following types of molecules are the major structural components of the cell membrane?

116. According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes, which of the following is a true statement about membrane phospholipids?

117. An animal cell lacking oligosaccharides on the external surface of its plasma membrane would likely be impaired in which function?

118. What kinds of molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily?

119. Which of the following statements is correct about diffusion?

120. What are the membrane structures that function in active transport?

121. White blood cells engulf bacteria through what process?

122. Which of the following processes includes all others?

123. Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones?

124. How can one increase the rate of a chemical reaction?

125. Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence: Catabolism is to anabolism as ____ is to ____.

126. How many carbon atoms are fed into the citric acid cycle as a result of the oxidation of one molecule of pyruvate?

127. One function of both alcohol fermentation and lactic acid fermentation is to

128.

Figure 12.2
If the cell whose nuclear material is shown in Figure 12.2 continues toward completion of mitosis, which of the following events would occur next?

129. The somatic cells derived from a single-celled zygote divide by which process?

Figure 4.2

130. Shown here in Figure 4.2 are the structures of glucose and fructose. These two molecules differ in the

131. All of the following are polysaccharides except